Calculus Section 1.6 This prove question is unclear to me. [ATTACH=full]2581[/ATTACH]
note: lim(f(x), x->0)=f(0) let us find the following limits: lim(f(x), x->0) and if x is a rational number, will be lim(x^2,x->0 ) =0^2=0 lim(f(x)) as x->0 and if x is a irrational number, will be Since the limits above are same, it proves that lim(f(x), x->0) does exist